American Psychological Association (APA) define pedophilia as an orientation in their Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM V). They distinguish between the "temptation to act" (pedophilia) and the actual "act itself" (pedophiliac disorder).

Initially when I shared this link posted, many responded with outrage that a human could even have the temptation or orientation in the first place.

The New Testament says that Jesus was tempted in EVERY way, yet he was without sin. It does not say that Jesus was without temptation, but without sin (acting on temptation). Indeed, if Jesus NEVER experienced temptation, then in reality there was no virtue in his being without sin. I have no temptation to murder (for example), so it is illogical for me to claim credit for resisting the act. There is simply nothing to resist. On the other hand, if Jesus was tempted in EVERY way, most believe that he was also exempt from certain temptations. Remember the outcry from the Christian community over the movie "The Last Temptation"? Most believed it was incomprehensible that Jesus would have experienced the temptation to have "sinful" sexual intercourse. So was Jesus exempt from certain temptations or as the Bible says, was he tempted in every way?